I haven't written in way too long and just wanted to post this fun
little proof.
Assertion: Let Fn be the nth
Fibonacci number defined by
Fn=Fn−1+Fn−2,F0=0,F1=1.
Show that for an odd prime p=5, we have
p divides Fp2−1.
Proof: We do this by working inside Fp
instead of working in R. The recurrence is
given by
(1110)(Fn−1Fn−2)=(Fn−1+Fn−2Fn−1)=(FnFn−1)
and in general
(1110)n(10)=(1110)n(F1F0)=(Fn+1Fn)
The matrix
A=(1110)
has characteristic polynomial
χA(t)=(1−t)(0−t)−(1)(1)=t2−t−1
If this polynomial has distinct roots, then A is
diagonalizable (this is sufficient, but not necessary). Assuming the converse
we have
χA(t)=(t−α)2 for some
α∈Fp; we can assume
α∈Fp
since −2α=−1 is
the coefficient of t, which means
α=2−1 (we are fine with this since
p odd means that 2−1 exists). In
order for this to be a root of χA, we must have
0≡4⋅χA(2−1)≡4⋅(2−2−2−1−1)≡1−2−4≡−5modp.
Since p=5 is prime, this is not possible, hence
we reached a contradiction and χA does not have
a repeated root.
Thus we may write χA(t)=(t−α)(t−β) for
α,β∈Fp2 (it's possible
that χA is irreducible over
Fp, but due to degree considerations it
must split completely over Fp2.
Using this, we may write
A=P(α00β)P−1
for some P∈GL2(Fp2)
and so
Ap2−1=P(α00β)p2−1P−1=P(αp2−100βp2−1)P−1
Since χA(0)=0−0−1=0 we know
α and β are nonzero, hence
αp2−1=βp2−1=1∈Fp2.
Thus Ap2−1=PI2P−1=I2 and so
(FpFp2−1)=(1110)p2−1(10)=I2(10)=(10)
so we have Fp2−1=0 in
Fp as desired.